Hebrews 1:3-14 (Examine)

1. So why does the author compare the Son to angels?

Understanding this question is huge when trying to understand what God is trying to teach us through the book of Hebrews. If your just looking at the book of Hebrews, you would come to the obvious conclusion that the people of that day held angels in high regard. You even see this in Hebrews 2:2-3...

"For if the message spoken by angels was binding, and every violation and disobedience received its just punishment, how shall we escape if we ignore such a great salvation?"

What was this message spoken by angels? Well, it is obviously something that a Jewish person would hold dear and pay attention to. It could be violated and disobeyed, so it included clear commands. Knowing that the author is proving to a Jewish audience that the New Covenant is better than the Old Covenant, contextually it makes sense that this message is the law.

If we look outside of this passage for insight into what the Jewish people believed in regards to the law and angels, we find a consistency. Look at Acts 7:53...

"...you (Jewish people), who have received the law that was put into effect by angels but have not obeyed it."

Here you have Stephen connecting the dots for us in his sermon right before he was stoned. Obviously there was a real connection for the Jewish reader between angels and the law, so it is fitting that the author of Hebrews addresses it right away, especially if your point is that the New Covenant is better than the Old.

2. There is a tension I find in this chapter as to the Sonship of Jesus. I see phrases like...
  • "...His Son, whom He appointed heir of all things..."
  • "So He became as much superior to the angels as the name He has inherited is superior to theirs."
  • "You are my Son; today I have become Your Father."
These are the phrases that give me pause, and I ask myself, "What does God mean by this?" It seems that Jesus has not always been the Son, or heir of all things, or superior to angels. Yet I also see things like...
  • "...through whom (the Son) He made the universe."
  • "The Son is the radiance of God's glory and the exact representation of His being."
  • He sustains all things "by His powerful word."
  • In reference to the Son, "In the beginning, O Lord, you laid the foundations of the earth, and the heavens are the work of your hands. They will perish, but you will remain."
  • "But You (reference to the Son) remain the same, and your years will never end."
On one hand you see the eternal nature of the deity of Jesus, and on the other there are words like appointed, inherited, became, and become. This leads me to believe that there is a separation between the nature of the Son and His role with His creation. Maybe, the triune God took on titles so that the creation could relate to them... especially Father and Son. Maybe when it comes to the phrase "He became as much superior..." is a reference to man's understanding of who Jesus is as He ascended to the right hand of the Father.

These are questions and possible answers, but there is no doubt as to the deity and eternal nature of Jesus. He is greater than angels... He is greater than you and me! Your thoughts are appreciated...

Comments

Tiffany said…
I recently finished walking through Hebrews for my own personal study, using the Life Application Bible Commentary (is that cheating?).

Concerning verse 4 regarding His Name being far superior...the commentary had this to say: "This name identified that His relationship with God, His power to forgive people's sins, and His ability to make God known were far superior."

It also mentions that the name "angels" simply means "messengers."

Concerning verse 5, the writer indicates that the present tense "you are" describes a continuing relationship. Jesus did not just become God's Son; He was always God's Son.

The word "today" refers to Christ's glorification.

As a side note, I am enjoying this study and have incorporated it into my daily time. Thanks for doing it. I look forward to read each posting. (Thanks also for posting early so that it could be part of my quiet time.)
David said…
Substance but distinct in subsistence. I don’t want to bore you with a bunch of stuff you probably know; however, Matthew 1:16 details with feminine qualities while Philippians 2:7 makes me baffled in terms of the kenosis. “The decree of God according to the counsel of His own will, whereby, for His glory, He hath foreordained whatsoever comes to pass.” Ryrie NASB. I mentioned earlier: ’ The prophets didn’t give up attributes to be prophets, they did the will of God. Christ was not impeccable He was amazing as anybody is in the will of the Father’ and rehash the statement regarding the doctrine we’re probably both trying to not make about ourselves. In terms of impeccability, I should clarify, sin was possible (Heb 4:5) I should of worded it - Christ was able not to sin. The way I explained it makes it sound like I’m calling Mary’s little lamb fleeced bye god for show. Think about the decree of God I just mentioned. Veiling glory on the Father is explained in John 17:5. Jesus asks His Father to share it?

P.S. ~ I’m really enjoying this J
Anonymous said…
I think that asking if Jesus has always been the Son is a lot like asking if the Holy Spirit has always been the Counselor. We know that the Father, Son, and Spirit are eternal beings all rolled into one God, but can we really wrap our minds around that? ...especially when our minds are bound by space and time.

I noticed that in verses 2-4 the author refers to Jesus as the Son. In verse 5, God calls himself and Jesus "Father and Son." Then, in verses 8-10, the author still calls Jesus the Son, but quotes God referring to him as "God" and "Lord."

So I would venture to say that Jesus was called the Son for our sake just like he was sent for our sake, and the author was trying to get across that although Jesus is the Son, He is also God.
David said…
This comment has been removed by the author.
David said…
I wrote a song called ‘Raising Cane’ many years ago. Here are a few lyrics, “Mother Mary we don’t need you anymore that’s why your little lamb was slain.” Obviously, I feel different now based on the simple ‘by whom’ in Matthew 1:16. Weather or not the Jews wanted to believe in the virgin birth and the anointed offices of Christ, God has made it known. Honestly, the song was made to offend a doctrine of another religion, while giving glory to Jehovah. I wrote it with the thought that many people were using Mary as an intercessor to God rather than Christ. In a way, she is because the virgin birth points to a substance of divine grace (Isaiah 7,14). So, I can’t say we don’t need her for she was in God’s plan in delivery of the Messiah. Mariology is perplexing, and if our original sin is pure concupiscence as John Calvin points out how is a sanctified grace adequate for purity? Mary wasn’t an angel; however, there was one near her baby.
Angels ordained the law, not grace.
Jon Pickens said…
Good comments all. I will be posting my thoughts on this in the morning. It's good to wrestle with these things, knowing that this finite mind can't even begin to grasp the depth of our infinite God.

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